AP Government Multiple Choice Questions Review AP U.S. Government and Politics Mr. Vasquez Select the BEST answer. Good luck! 1. Who is most likely to receive attention in the media? a. The secretary of defense b. The Speaker of the House c. The Senate majority leader d. The president e. The chief justice of the Supreme Court 2. The media’s effect on public opinion can best be described as a. influencing which issues the public sees as important. b. influencing older citizens’ opinions of incumbents. c. affecting the public’s views on domestic policy only. d. changing well-‐educated people’s views on foreign policy. e. influencing the public’s views on controversial issues only. 3. Which of the following has NOT increased since 1960? a. The number of government employees b. The number of presidential addresses c. The number of newspapers in major cities d. The number of registered African-‐American voters e. The number of women working in the public sector 4. All the following choices are characteristics of the high-‐tech presidential campaign EXCEPT a. 60-‐second spots on national news shows. b. political debates that include minor party candidates. c. paid infomercials by candidates using graphs and charts. d. sophisticated polling techniques done by paid consultants. e. candidates acting like talking heads. 5. Which of the following is most frequently reported in the media during a presidential election? a. Results from public opinion polls that indicate which candidates are most likely to win b. The official platforms of each of the major political parties c. Financial strategies and management of the campaigns d. Comparisons of candidates’ positions on foreign and domestic policy issues e. Information about the candidates’ experience in government and record in office 6. The agenda-‐setting function of the media refers to the power to a. endorse specific candidates for political office b. favor the position of one interest group over another c. counter the censorship activities of media watch groups d. mobilize economic interests in favor of a particular candidate e. decide which issues are important enough to bring to public attention 7. All of the following are examples of a linkage institution influencing the policy process EXCEPT a. the president delivering the State of the Union speech 1
b. c. d. e.
the Sierra Club lobbying the Environmental Protection Agency the outcome of a congressional election an exposé by the national media on the housing crisis the Republican Party pursuing a balanced budget amendment 8. Which of the following stages comes first in the policy-‐making process? a. Agenda setting b. Legitimation c. Program evaluation d. Policy formulation e. Implementation 9. Which of the following situations best illustrates the meaning of divided government in the United States political system? a. The majority of Supreme Court justices are from one party, but the president is from another. b. The majority of governors are from one party, but the president is from another. c. The president and a majority of members of Congress are from one party, but the majority of governors are from another. d. The majority of senators and the majority of representatives are from one party, but the president is from another. e. The majority of Supreme Court justices are from one party, but the majority of senators and representatives are from another. 10. According to James Madison, which of the following best controls the effects of faction? a. Direct democracy b. The popular election of state judges c. A large republic d. Property requirements for eligibility to work e. The creation of a merit-‐based civil service 11. One of the best strategies that interest groups can use to achieve their goals is a. pressing for changes in high-‐profile public policies b. lobbying members of Congress to make small changes in existing policy c. using the judiciary to invalidate federal legislation d. encouraging states to use their Tenth Amendment rights and ignore federal law e. running candidates for office 12. Interest groups use political action committees (PACs) to a. provide expertise to members of Congress when they are writing legislation b. lobby the executive bureaucracy when they are considering new rules and regulations c. raise and spend money on election campaigns d. generate research that can be used to influence public opinion e. hire policy experts who will promote their views in the media 13. Which of the following is the main reason interest groups are often successful in getting legislation passed to benefit their members? a. It is easy to garner support from most members of Congress on any issue. b. All members of society desire the legislation that special interests pursue. c. It is very easy to get legislation passed in Congress. 2
d. A narrow constituency derives the benefits from such legislation but the costs are spread broadly across the population. e. Interest group activity represents the democratic process at work because individual interest groups often represent more than half the population. 14. Which of the following is a significant political consequence of the trend toward investigative journalism? a. The job requirements for becoming a journalist are now more stringent. b. Public attention is focused more on scandal than on political issues. c. Americans are better informed than they were in the decades before television. d. The public now gets most of its information from television news sources. e. Americans are now more likely to think critically about political issues. 15. All of the following are characteristics of a traditional democracy EXCEPT a. An informed electorate b. A bill of rights c. Public participation d. Equal access to government institutions e. National elections 16. Interest groups tend to do all of the following EXCEPT a. Lobby public officials directly. b. Submit bills to Congress. c. Endorse political candidates. d. Form political action committees. e. File “amicus curiae” briefs. 17. Which of the following interest groups has become the most influential in recent years? a. NRA b. AARP c. AFL-‐CIO d. AFSCME e. HIAA 18. Smaller interest groups often meet with more success because a. They have highly developed methods of fundraising. b. They make large campaign contributions c. Their members are more active. d. They have more resources with which to mobilize the public. e. They pursue only less politicized issues. 19. Iron triangles are composed of a. A cabinet department, a legislative committee, and a federal judge. b. A corporate board, an interest group, and the Speaker of the House. c. A PAC, an interest group, and a congressional candidate. d. An interest group, a legislative committee, and a federal agency. e. A local civic group, a state legislator, and a federal department. 20. When contributing to congressional campaigns, political action committees (PACs) are most likely to contribute to 3
a. b. c. d. e.
Incumbents of both major parties Third-‐party challengers Republican challengers State party organizations National party organizations 21. Interest groups offer incentives to join in order to: a. influence members of Congress. b. gain access to key congressional staff members. c. bribe presidential candidates. d. gain access to congressional leaders. e. overcome the free rider problem. 22. The largest number of PACs are run by: a. labor unions. b. corporations. c. political parties d. trade associations e. health associations. 23. The cozy relationship between politicians and the press in the 20th century lasted until a. World War II. b. the Iranian Hostage Crisis. c. the Vietnam War and Watergate. d. the beginning of Franklin Roosevelt's presidency. e. the commercialization of television. 24. Politicians and the media are natural adversaries, the adversarial nature of their relationship however, is tempered by the fact that: a. Younger politicians who are more comfortable with the media are gradually displacing older politicians b. Government regulations strictly regulate interaction between the two c. Each is dependent on the other to perform its job effectively d. Very few media outlets will cover a story that is embarrassing to a political leader e. Most government activity is classified and therefore inaccessible to the media 25. The media play what kind of role related to public policy? a. Raising money to support candidates running for office b. Linking the electorate to the formal institutions of government c. Investigating the personal ethics of elected officials d. Educating the public and politicians on options and issues e. Influencing politicians by offering them lower advertising rates. 26. Under Federal Communications Commission’s equal access rules, broadcasters must: a. Give free airtime to all candidates for public office b. Assure that both sides on a controversial issue like abortion get equal time to discuss their views. c. Air debates for candidates running for office in their market d. Provide the same opportunity for political candidates to present their views
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e. Take diversity for their market into account in deciding news coverage 27. In attempting to gain public support for his agenda the president uses all of the following EXCEPT: a. Speaking to the nation via television and radio b. Appearing for a photo-‐opportunity c. Providing sound bites for the media d. Holding a press conference e. Holding a private meeting with key supporters 28. Which of the following is the best indication of pluralism in American politics? a. The American Association of Retired Persons has the largest membership of any interest group. b. Third parties often endorse candidates for office, but rarely do they win elections. c. The federal bureaucracy is expanding as more and more citizens are hired for federal jobs. d. More than 20,000 interest groups lobby Congress each year. e. Citizens are able to vote in local, state, and national elections. 29. The United States is NOT a direct democracy because a. The population has increased too rapidly in the past 100 years. b. The authors of the Constitution did not trust the public to make informed decisions. c. The Constitution prohibits direct representation. d. The separation of powers would not work in a direct democracy. e. A direct democracy would not fairly represent all Americans. 30. A citizen who disapproves of proposed legislation can do all of the following EXCEPT a. Call or write a letter to his or her senator. b. Vote for a different candidate in the next election. c. Join a political interest group. d. Vote against legislation. e. Participate in a protest. 31. Hyperpluralists differ from pluralists in their belief that a. The representation of too many interests is detrimental to policymaking. b. Only the wealthiest lobbyists are heard in Congress. c. Power should be centralized in one branch of government. d. Competition among groups leads to compromise and, hence, stronger policy. e. Political groups get their funds exclusively from big business. 32. According to John Locke, what was the sole purpose of government? a. promote the common good. b. prevent anarchy. c. educate the people. d. protect individuals from violence. e. protect natural rights. 33. Madison’s Federalist Paper #51 argues for the necessity of a. Factions b. Life terms for the Judiciary c. Checks and balances d. An executive branch 5
e. States’ rights 34. The Framers of the U.S. Constitution a. established the British system of parliamentary government. b. were interested in promoting equality above all else. c. were opposed to the concept of limited government. d. were distrustful of democracy. e. established a unitary system of government. 35. One of the key elements of the Madisonian Model was a. form an extensive bureaucracy. b. create a dominant executive branch. c. separate the powers of the policymaking institutions. d. explicitly enumerate the rights of the states. e. extend suffrage to all citizens. 36. Federalism is a. A system of shared power by the state and national governments. b. The same as unitary government. c. Sole government authority in the national government. d. Sole government authority in the states. e. A three-‐branch government with a system of checks and balances. 37. The Constitution grants the power to directly regulate such things as speed limits, marriages, and intrastate commerce to a. all governments by the Bill of Rights. b. the national government. c. the president. d. state governments. e. both the state and national governments. 38. Which of the following is NOT a power shared by the federal and state governments? a. Maintain courts b. Make and enforce laws c. Collect taxes d. Allocate money for public needs e. Maintain foreign relations 39. Interest groups promote democracy in the United States by a. Linking citizens to the political process. b. Centralizing public authority. c. Increasing the domination of politics by the elite. d. Donating money so that the media will promote their messages. e. Promoting ideologically distinct messages that keep them in contention with each other. 40. In 1933, the Eighteenth Amendment was repealed by the a. Nineteenth Amendment b. Twentieth Amendment c. Twenty-‐first Amendment d. Twenty-‐sixth Amendment 6
e. Twenty-‐seventh Amendment 41. The main criticism levied against the Articles of Confederation was that it a. gave too much power to the central government. b. failed to give the national government the authority to lay and collect taxes. c. did not allow the federal government to govern new territories. d. created a powerful judicial branch. e. had a term limit provision for the president. 42. The Seventeenth Amendment changed the nature of senatorial elections by a. Prohibiting PACs from contributing in senatorial campaigns. b. Establishing a group of electors from each state to nominate senators. c. Permitting senatorial debates to be aired on television. d. Scheduling them to held every two years. e. Allowing senators to be elected directly by the people. 43. All of the following are guaranteed under the Fifth Amendment EXCEPT a. Due process of law b. A person cannot be tried twice for the same crime c. The accused cannot be made to serve as witness against himself or herself. d. Property may not be taken without due process of law and fair compensation e. Bail cannot be denied 44. Which of the following concepts of government introduced in the Articles of Confederation was maintained in the Constitution? a. Exclusionary rule b. Limited government c. Checks and balances d. State supremacy e. Direct democracy 45. Anti-‐Federalists argued against adoption of the Constitution for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. It failed to centralize power b. It responded to the needs of the minority, not the majority c. It placed too many restrictions on the states d. It neglected individual rights e. It favored property owners 46. The Constitution established a system of equal representation by creating a. A system of federal courts b. A bicameral legislature c. The Electoral College d. Three branches of government e. The Bill of Rights 47. How did the Federalists address the Anti-‐Federalists’ fears? a. They created the Bill o f Rights. b. They ratified 12 amendments to the Constitution. c. The published the Anti-‐ Federalist papers to give both sides of their voice. 7
d. The first president, George Washington, was an Anti-‐ Federalist. e. The Federalists were unable to find a compromise which addressed the Anti-‐Federalists’ concerns. 48. On the issue of slaves, the Constitution specified: a. that a gradual end to slavery must be worked out by Congress and the states by 1808. b. that slavery would be banned beginning in 1865. c. a boundary, known as the Mason-‐Dixon line, south of which slavery would be legal. d. nothing; it was too controversial a subject and the delegates could not agree on anything regarding it. e. that slaves would count as three-‐fifths persons for counting the nation’s population and determining seats in the House. 49. The Madisonian requirement that each branch of government acquire consent of the others for many of its actions created a system of: a. A confederated government. b. unitary government. c. federalism. d. checks and balances. e. constitutional republic. 50. The Connecticut (Great) Compromise at the Constitutional Convention a. added the Bill o f Rights to the Constitution in order to lessen concerns about too much power for the new government. b. resolved the gridlock between those who favored the New Jersey Plan and those who preferred the Virginia Plan. c. settled the dispute about whether slavery should be permitted in the final Constitution. d. threw out the idea of having a monarch in the United States, opting instead for an indirectly elected president. e. involved all o f these elements. 51. The Supreme Court in Marbury v. Madison (1803) asserted the power of the Court to a. determine its own size and makeup. b. nullify constitutional amendments. c. check the actions of the other branches through judicial review. d. impeach the president. e. confirm presidential appointments. 52. Which of the following is NOT a power shared by the Federal and State governments? a. maintain courts. b. make and enforce laws. c. collect taxes. d. allocate money for public needs. e. maintain foreign relations 53. The ideas of limiting the role of government to protecting “life, liberty, and property” is generally attributed to a. Karl Marx b. Thomas Jefferson c. Thomas Hobbes 8
d. John Locke e. Alexander Hamilton 54. The significance of Shays’ Rebellion was: a. It demonstrated that the Articles of Confederation was weak and unable to adequately respond to a crisis b. It exposed the flaws in the Constitution c. Its demonstrated the superiority of the national standing army d. It demonstrated the effectiveness of the national court system e. It increased the power of the president 55. All of the following represent examples of limited government EXCEPT a. The application of habeas corpus in criminal appeals b. The prohibition of passage of bills attainder laws c. Congress not being allowed to pass ex post facto laws d. The inability of the president to grant titles of nobility e. The Reserved Power Clause of the Tenth Amendment 56. A writ of habeas corpus refers to a. a person’s right to know the reasons for his or her imprisonment b. a person’s right to not be charged for an action committed before that action was a crime c. a person’s right to trial by jury d. the protection against cruel and unusual punishment e. a demand from one state to extradite a suspect from another state 57. The concept that the national government is supreme in its own sphere while the states are equally supreme in theirs is known as a. Cooperative federalism b. Balanced federalism c. Dual federalism d. Home rule e. Emerging federalism 58. An important distinction between a categorical grant and a block grant is that: a. states must provide matching funds for a block grant b. states have more freedom in determining how to use block grants c. block grants are more numerous than categorical grants d. categorical grants have comparatively few restrictions e. block grants are targeted to very specific program goals 59. Which of the following best describes the theory of federalism known as cooperative (marble cake) federalism? a. The federal government and the states each have separate and mutually exclusive roles and responsibilities; neither controls the other. b. the states have some powers reserved to them, which they may exercise if the Supreme Court permits. c. the federal government and the state have separate but overlapping powers; where these powers conflict the federal government prevails. d. The states may only exercise those powers delegated to them by Congress
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e. The federal government may exercise only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution. 60. In Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court ruled a. judicial review was a power of the court b. state contracts took precedence over federal law c. Congress had the exclusive right to regulate interstate commerce d. The states cannot tax the national government e. That New York state had a legitimate monopoly on the lower Hudson River 61. Enumerated powers of the federal government include all of the following EXCEPT the power to a. coin money b. declare war c. regulate interstate commerce d. regulate intrastate commerce e. tax 62. The full faith and credit clause would require all of the following EXCEPT a. That a marriage performed in Las Vegas be valid in other states. b. That a driver’s license serve as identification when a person travels across state lines. c. That a divorced parent pay child support even if his or her child reside in another state. d. That a birth certificate issued by any state can be used to open a bank account. e. That something against the law in one state is against the law in all other states. 63. All of the following are concurrent powers of the federal and state governments EXCEPT the a. imposition of export tariffs. b. Collection of taxes. c. Management of the court system. d. Construction of roads. e. Authority to borrow money. 64. The elastic clause gives Congress the authority to a. Overrule the president’s veto. b. Pass laws necessary to carry out its assigned powers. c. Form an unlimited number of committees and subcommittees. d. Check the power of the Supreme Court by approving the president’s nominees for justices. e. Regulate money and control the budget. 65. The principle of the supremacy of federal law over state law was affirmed in a. the Tenth Amendment. b. McCulloch v. Maryland. c. United States v. Lopez. d. Marbury v. Madison. e. the presidential election of 1800. 66. In the 1980’s, the federal government compelled the states to raise their drinking age by a. invoking the supremacy clause b. creating a national drinking age through congressional legislation 10
c. invoking the federal government’s police power d. creating grants that threatened to withhold highway funds e. ratifying the twenty-‐first amendment 67. Federal policies to regulate food and drugs are examples of: a. constitutionally specified powers b. reserved powers c. categorical grants d. expressed powers e. implied powers
68. Fiscal federalism is a. the pattern of spending, taxing, and providing grants in the federal system. b. the distinct separation of national government spending versus state and local government spending. c. the federal government’s regulation of the money supply and interest rates. d. the federal income tax. e. a sharing of local and national resources practiced in other countries but not in the United States. Questions 69 refer to the following excerpts from a United States Supreme Court decision. “We are unanimously of opinion, that the law passed by the legislature of Maryland, imposing a tax on the Bank o United States, is unconstitutional and void...This is a tax on the government of the Union to carry its powers into execution. Such a tax must be unconstitutional...” 69. This decision of the Supreme Court upheld the principle that a. The federal government and the state governments are equal b. Congress has only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution c. Congress has the power to make laws to carry out its constitutional duties d. Taxation without representation is unconstitutional e. The federal government alone may levy taxes 70. One reason that minority groups are more likely to favor liberal policies is that they a. Have highly developed political knowledge. b. Typically pay more in federal income taxes. c. Have benefitted from federal social programs in the past. d. Have a greater distrust of government. e. Usually belong to a high socioeconomic class. 71. Young Americans are the least politically active group for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. They have little political experience b. They are not likely to watch the news or read newspapers c. They have been taught to distrust the government d. They have not developed a sense of what they need from government e. They have not witnessed the impact of governmental policies 72. Which is the most common way that ordinary citizens participate in politics? a. joining political protests. b. writing letters to a local newspaper. 11
c. voting in elections. d. contacting their representatives. e. joining an interest group. 73. Which of the following tendencies about group voting behavior is true? a. The Republican party receives significant support from Jewish voters. b. Rural citizens are more likely than urban dwellers to vote for the Democratic party. c. More women than men identify themselves as Republicans. d. African American voters tend to support the more liberal candidates within the Democratic party. e. Roman Catholics tend to be more liberal that Agnostics on the issue of abortion. 74. Sampling error describes: a. how often polling questions have biased wording. b. how closely a sample matches the population that the poll is measuring. c. how frequently polling organizations make correct projections. d. how often a polling organization makes incorrect projections. e. how often a sample statistic is correct. 75. Party identification in the United States is most successfully transmitted by which of the following? a. Workplace b. Church c. Educational system d. The media e. Family 76. Voter turnout tends to be highest among a. College-‐educated voters b. Working-‐class voters c. African American voters d. Young voters e. Low-‐income voters 77. Which of the following is most important for getting an accurate measure of public opinion in a survey? a. Surveying only cell phone users b. Selecting a random sample c. Asking leading questions d. Contacting only registered voters e. Conducting the survey online 78. Which of the following groups would be most likely to support a constitutional amendment banning all abortions? a. Conservatives b. Libertarians c. Independents d. Liberals
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e. Moderates 79. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the voting behavior of Americans over the age of 65? a. They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they have received the highest level of formal education of all age groups. b. They are as, or more, likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they believe that they have a personal stake in government policy. c. They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because it is difficult for them to get to the polls. d. They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because they are less likely to be aware of election schedules. e. They are less likely to vote than are members of other age groups because very few senior citizens run for political office. 80. All of the following contribute to lower voting rates among Americans in the 18-‐to-‐25 age bracket EXCEPT a. College attendance in a state other than one’s home state. b. Frequent relocation of one’s primary residence. c. The remoteness of most political issues to the daily lives of young people. d. The fact that the minimum voting age in some states is 21. e. Military service 81. A conservative would be more likely than a liberal to support a. A prohibition on certain firearms. b. Decreased military spending. c. Tighter environmental regulations. d. Devolution to state governments. e. Civil unions for same-‐sex couples. 82. Unlike interest groups, political parties a. are policy specialists. b. do not take positions on policy issues. c. are unable to spend money on election campaigns. d. are policy generalists. e. have a narrower scope than interest groups. 83. Political parties play an important role in democracy because they a. Give voters radically different choices of policy initiatives. b. Offer politicians a distinct political identity. c. Connect the public with policymaking institutions. d. Contribute to a centralized federal government. e. Influence policy in each of the three branches of government. 84. Policy gridlock is most likely to occur when a. a party wins a significant majority of the seats in Congress. b. there is a third-‐party candidate in the presidential election. c. a political party forms a coalition around a specific policy. d. the president is of a different party from the majority party in Congress. 13
e. the same party wins the majority in both houses of Congress. 85. The development and persistence of the two-‐party system in the United States is best accounted for by a. the Twelfth Amendment b. proportional representation c. multimember legislative districts d. single-‐member legislative districts e. strong party loyalty of elected representatives 86. The concept of realignment refers to changes in a. the United States system of international alliances b. the social bases of the parties’ voting support c. the media’s criticism of the president and Congress d. spending priorities in the federal budget e. the rate of voter participation 87. Which of the following statements about voting behavior in national elections is most accurate? a. Men are more likely to vote than are women. b. Blue-‐collar workers are more likely to vote than are professionals. c. Those with less than a high school education are more likely to vote than are college graduates. d. Democrats are more likely to vote than are Republicans. e. Senior citizens are more likely to vote than are college students. 88. When people vote for some candidates from one party and other candidates from another party, it is called a. dealignment b. realignment c. republicanism d. ticket splitting e. caucusing 89. Which of the following best accounts for the lack of success generally encountered by minor political parties in electing members to the House or Senate? a. Political action committee (PAC) contributions are restricted by law to the two major parties. b. General elections in the United States are based on the winner-‐take-‐all principle. c. House and Senate rules exclude members of minor parties from organizing coalitions with the major parties. d. The public has great faith in the two major political parties. e. Some states outlaw minor political parties. 90. When party members meet to nominate a candidate for office, they participate in which of the following? a. General election b. Caucus c. Blanket primary d. Open primary e. Closed primary 14
91. Citizens who believe that their votes will have no effect on the outcome of an election have a a. High level of trust in elected officials b. High level of political participation c. High level of political interest d. Low level of political efficacy e. Low level of political cynicism 92. All of the following were political consequences of the Great Depression EXCEPT a. The Democratic Party forged a new coalition. b. The New Deal greatly expanded the scope of federal activities. c. It defined the Democratic Party that still exists, for the most part, today. d. It began a new party era of Democratic control of the federal government. e. It initiated the current trend of divided government. 93. The process through which parties nominate their candidate for the presidency is called a. A critical election b. A national convention c. An open primary d. A closed primary e. A national committee 94. Which of the following has led to ticket splitting in recent elections? a. Party dealignment b. Open primaries c. Party realignment d. Patronage system e. Closed primaries 95. The Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) established all of the following EXCEPT a. A fund for public donations to presidential campaigns. b. Rules for the disclosure of all campaign financing and spending information. c. Limits on personal contributions to presidential and congressional candidates. d. A fund for public donations to congressional campaigns. e. The Federal Election Commission to regulate campaign financing. 96. All of the following are techniques employed in a modern campaign EXCEPT a. Direct mail b. Web sites c. Television advertising d. Public appearances e. Newspaper articles 97. Primary elections are not very representative of the electorate’s preferences because a. They occur in only a few states. b. Voters in primary elections are usually less politically knowledgeable than the majority. c. Only college graduates are allowed to vote in them. d. They take place early, before voters have a chance to learn about the candidates. e. Voters in primary elections are usually older and more affluent than the majority. 15
98. In response to the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (McCain-‐Feingold Act), the United States Supreme Court, in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010), ruled that a. limits cannot be placed upon candidates’ contributions to their own campaigns b. independent campaign expenditures by corporations and unions are protected by the First Amendment c. limits on issue advertisements 90 days before an election are unconstitutional d. limits on campaign contributions by minors are constitutional under the First Amendment e. requiring endorsement statements in campaign advertisements is unconstitutional 99. Typically, presidential candidates implement their campaign strategies by a. applying their resources evenly among the states, because they must win popular votes in a majority of the states to be elected b. focusing on larger, competitive states, because they might tip the balance of the electoral college c. focusing on small states, because these states have proportionally more electoral votes than more populous states have d. ignoring the electoral college, because the popular vote determines the outcome of the election e. ignoring the electoral college, because more states are moving away from the winner-‐take-‐ all system 100. When none of the presidential candidates receives a majority of the votes in the electoral college, the winner is chosen by the a. Federal Elections Commission b. Supreme Court c. Senate only d. House of Representatives only e. Majority of the House and Senate combined 101. The task of joint committees in Congress is to a. Register bills to be introduced to the floor and schedule debate. b. Handle proposed legislation that deals with more than one area of policy. c. Merge each house’s version of a bill into a single bill. d. Combine members of both House and Senate to consider overlapping policy areas. e. Educate the public about the activities of Congress. 102. Incumbents all of the following advantages over their challengers EXCEPT a. Incumbents receive more campaign donations than challengers. b. Challengers’ positions on most issues are not likely to be known by the public c. Incumbents have well-‐established relationships with their constituencies. d. Incumbents have higher visibility than challengers. e. Challengers have a clean political record, and incumbents do not. 103. A senator can effectively prevent the Senate from voting by a. Conducting oversight b. Filibustering c. Introducing another bill. d. Holding hearings e. No known process because the rules are very structured. 16
104.
Membership in the House is determined by which of the following methods? a. States are divided into congressional districts of equal population, with one representative per district. b. Electors from each state cast their vote based on the popular vote. c. Political parties elect their representatives internally. d. The public elects two representatives from each state. e. Seats are divided among regions of the United States, each with the same number of representatives. 105. On a bill with high visibility, members of Congress are most likely to vote a. Along party lines b. According to their personal ideology. c. In a presidential coalition. d. In keeping with the needs of their constituency. e. According to the pressures of lobbyists. 106. After a House committee reviews a bill and writes its report, the bill goes to the a. Senate b. Appropriate subcommittee c. President d. Floor for debate e. House Rules Committee 107. Which of the following types of committee deals with broad areas of public policy and can be found in both houses of Congress? a. Rules b. Select c. Joint d. Standing e. Conference 108. Congress is most likely to exert oversight of the executive bureaucracy in which of the following ways? a. Directly selecting the head of an executive agency b. Impeaching the head of an executive agency c. Using the Court to block implementation of proposed regulations d. Controlling an executive agency’s annual budget e. Changing the term length of heads of independent regulatory commissions 109. Which of the following identifies the formal procedure for ending a filibuster? a. Oversight b. Cloture c. Logrolling d. Pocket veto e. Discharge petition 110. If legislation passes in both the House of Representatives and the Senate but each version is slightly different, the conflicting bills are sent to a. a standing committee of each house for a vote b. an ad hoc committee for judicial review 17
c. a conference committee for review and compromise d. the Rules Committee of each house for reconciliation and compromise e. the majority and minority leaders of both houses for compromise 111. The United States Constitution says that Congress has the power to coin money. This is an example of a. an enumerated power b. an implied power c. an inherent power d. a reserved power e. a concurrent power 112.
a. b. c. d. e.
113. a. b. c. d. e.
A difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate is that in the House legislative activity on the floor is more constrained by rules committees are less important in the decision-‐making process junior members have more influence over legislative decisions party leaders are less powerful bills are more likely to be amended on the floor Which of the following constitutional provisions broadened the power of Congress? The equal protection clause The necessary and proper clause The Tenth Amendment The Ninth Amendment The eminent domain provision in the Fifth Amendment
114. Which of the following actions by a congressional representative is an example of “pork barreling”? a. Accepting money from a political action committee (PAC) b. Misusing campaign contributions c. Directing federal funds into the representative’s district through legislation d. Attempting to kill a bill with unacceptable amendments e. Voting for a salary increase 115.
Congressional oversight refers to the power of Congress to override presidential vetoes hold public hearings before confirming judicial appointees exercise some control over executive agencies allow nongovernmental agencies to defend or refute pending legislation publicly e. seek judicial opinion on the constitutionality of pending legislation a. b. c. d.
116.
a. b. c. d.
e. 117. a.
The House Rules Committee is an important part of the legislative process because it determines ethics rules for members’ conduct determines whether a bill should be referred to a policy committee for consideration has the authority to limit the Speaker and Minority leader in their use of patronage negotiates compromises on bills with the Senate Rules Committee determines the terms and conditions of debate when a bill goes to the House floor The three points of an iron triangle include An independent agency, a state, and a member of Congress 18
b. c. d. e.
An administrative agency, an interest group, and a congressional committee A cabinet department, an interest group, and the House majority leader A regulatory commission, a corporation, and the White House Office The Executive Office of the President, an interest group, and a Senate committee 118. When contributing to congressional campaigns, political action committees (PACs) are most likely to contribute to a. Incumbents of both major parties b. Third-‐party challengers c. Republican challengers d. State party organizations e. National party organizations 119. The Speaker of House has many responsibilities. All of the following reflect roles the speaker plays EXCEPT a. Acting as chief presiding officer of the House b. Serving as third in line in presidential succession c. Making committee assignments for both parties d. Playing a key role in appointing committee chairs e. Working hand in hand with the president relating to the legislative agenda if they are both from the same party 120. All of the following happened as a result of the Connecticut Compromise agreed to at the Constitutional Convention in 1789 EXCEPT a. There had to be a minimum of two congressmen for each state b. Congress was made into a bicameral institution. c. Each state’s representation in the House would be determined by population. d. Senators would be elected directly by the people. e. Each state was guaranteed two senators. 121. Executive agreements have been cited as a. Modern presidents often try to avoid legislative checks and balances on their authority. b. The executive branch has become too large and bureaucratic. c. Presidents have less power in handling foreign policy than in handling domestic policy. d. Interest groups have too much power in the contemporary governmental system. e. The courts have few means of limiting presidential power. 122. The primary function of the White House staff is to a. Initiate policy b. Advise the president c. Represent the bureaucratic agencies d. Provide information to the Office of Management and Budget e. Act as liaison with members of Congress 123. The Wars Powers Resolution does which of the following? a. Gives the president the power to declare war b. Requires that Congress report to the president before it cuts military appropriations c. Requires that the president notify Congress within 48 hours of deploying troops d. Allows the National Security Council to conduct military operations if the president is incapacitated 19
e. Shifts military command responsibility from the president to the Joint Chiefs of Staff 124. The constitutional powers of the president include all of the following EXCEPT a. Acting a head of military b. Vetoing legislation c. Granting pardons d. Appointing ambassadors e. Declaring war 125. Which of the following best explains why cabinet secretaries might not aggressively pursue the president’s policy agenda? a. Cabinet secretaries are unlikely to be members of the president’s party. b. Cabinet secretaries are likely to compete with the president in a subsequent election. c. Under the Hatch Act, cabinet secretaries are prohibited from campaigning on behalf of the president. d. Cabinet secretaries may develop strong loyalty to their departments. e. The Freedom of Information Act compels cabinet secretaries to divulge confidential information to the media. 126. If Congress adjourns during the ten days the president has to consider a bill passed by both houses of Congress, but which the president has not yet signed, what is the result? a. Line-‐item veto b. Legislative veto c. Executive veto d. Judicial review e. Pocket veto 127. Which of the following describes the president’s Cabinet? a. It consists of career civil servants with decades of experience in government service. b. Its members have varying levels of influence on presidential decisions. c. Its members hold office for fixed terms that coincide with the president’s. d. Its members must be selected from among current or former members of Congress. e. Its members are required to approve presidential policy decisions. 128. Which of the following best explains why the winner of a presidential election usually claims to have a mandate from voters? a. The president’s party often wins a majority of seats in Congress by riding the president’s coattails. b. The allocation of electoral votes in the winner-‐take-‐all system exaggerates the margin of victory. c. Presidents are allowed to implement their legislative agendas without interference during their first term. d. The new president is allowed to replace a significant number of justices on the Supreme Court. e. The incoming president automatically gains control of Congress. 129. The expansion of the executive branch since 1939 has affected the separation of powers by a. Increasing presidential control over the legislative process b. Increasing the power of the media as a result of more frequent presidential press conferences 20
c. Reducing the power of the Supreme Court through the use of executive orders d. Giving more power to interest groups than to parties e. Making senatorial approval of presidential appointees ceremonial 130. Constitutional checks and balances, especially applied to the president, are designed to a. provide for a balanced budget b. minimize the threat of tyranny from any one branch of government c. ensure that the states do not become too powerful d. ensure efficient government e. ensure that the federal government is militarily strong 131. Which of the following is an example of presidential use of informal powers? a. President Ronald Reagan nominating Sandra Day O’Connor to the United States Supreme Court b. President John F. Kennedy negotiating the Nuclear Test-‐Ban Treaty with the Soviet Union c. President Bill Clinton advocating for public policy reform on his Health Security Express bus d. President George W. Bush deploying United States troops to Iraq e. President Barack Obama delivering the State of the Union address to Congress 132. A bill is vetoed by the president a. Goes to a conference committee for revision. b. Must be rewritten by the representative who authored it. c. Will never become law. d. Goes to a federal court for approval of the veto. e. Can become law if Congress overrides the veto. 133. Presidents attempt to influence policymaking in all of the following ways EXCEPT by a. Appealing directly to the public for support b. Proposing legislation in congressional committees. c. Offering favors such as backing during reelection. d. Exchanging support for policies with representatives e. Building coalitions among party members. 134. Which of the following factors is the greatest influence on a citizen’s approval of the president? a. His or her political party affiliation. b. The president’s success in working with Congress. c. His or her state of residence. d. The president’s success in diplomacy. e. His or her understanding of the Constitution. 135. The presidency has become a more powerful institution for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. The United States has become more active in foreign affairs. b. The bureaucracy has expanded as the government has taken on more regulatory responsibilities. c. New technology requires a more immediate response to crises than Congress can offer. d. The Supreme Court has increasingly interpreted the Constitution in favor of the president.
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e. The advent of television has made the presidency more public. 136. Which of the following statements about the presidential veto is true? a. Presidents frequently veto legislation. b. Congress rarely overrides a veto. c. The pocket veto has proved to be an effective tool of intimidation. d. Presidents can use a line-‐item veto to reject only part of a bill. e. Presidents are more likely to veto legislation at the beginning of their first term. 137. As set forth in the Constitution, the order of presidential succession is the vice president, then the a. Speaker of the House b. Secretary of state c. Senate majority leader d. Attorney General e. Chief justice of the Supreme Court 138. A presidential candidate is most likely to choose a vice presidential running mate who a. Has charisma and an appearance that will appeal to the public. b. Has made substantial campaign contributions. c. Will be able to preside impartially over the Senate. d. Will attract voters from a part of the electorate that is otherwise not as likely to favor the president. e. Has highly specialized diplomatic skills with which to advise the president in foreign relations. 139. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation of executive spending proposals submitted to Congress? a. Treasury Department b. Council of Economic Advisors c. Federal Trade Commission d. Department of Commerce e. Office of Management and Budget 140. Historically, the approval rating of the president usually a. Remains around 50 percent during his entire term. b. Fluctuates depending on his response to national and international problems. c. Is lowest during times of war. d. Is highest toward the end of his presidency. e. Depends on the kind of media coverage he gets. 141. The progressive income tax system currently in use authorizes wealthy people to a. Pay the same amount in taxes as people in other income brackets. b. Pay taxes at about twice the rate as people in lowest income bracket. c. Pay taxes at a slightly lower rate than people in the middle income bracket. d. Pay taxes slightly higher than the rate of people in the lowest income bracket. e. Pay taxes at the same rate as people in the middle income bracket. 142. Which of the following institutions is responsible for compiling the president’s budget proposal? 22
a. b. c. d. e.
Department of the Treasury Congressional Budget Office Senate Appropriations Committee Office of Management and Budget Council of Economic Advisers 143. Which of the following is an uncontrollable expenditure? a. National security b. Public education c. Entitlement programs d. Highway systems e. Energy research 144. Which of the following committees plays a major role in the House in shaping tax policy? a. Finance b. Ways and Means c. Commerce d. Appropriations e. Governmental Affairs 145. Much of the steady increase in federal government expenditures since 1960 has been caused by a. increases in entitlement programs b. higher interest rates caused by an increase in the discount rate c. the provisions of the Gramm-‐Rudman-‐ Hollings Act d. increased purchases of United States government securities by foreign investors e. the growth of the United States trade imbalance 146. If Congress wanted to effect a change in the Social Security payroll tax, to what congressional committee would the task initially be assigned? a. House Appropriations Committee b. Senate Appropriations Committee c. House Ways and Means Committee d. House Rules Committee e. Senate Finance Committee 147.
148.
Which of the following best describes the federal budget? a. It is a document that announces how much the government expects to collect in taxes and how expenditures will be allocated on various programs. b. It is a document that just predicts a bottom line, including the dollar amount of a projected surplus or deficit. c. It is a document that describes the federal debt and proposes a payment plan. d. It is a document that changes over the course of a year, as revenue and expenditures change with the times. e. It is a general policy statement outlining the economic goals of the federal government for the upcoming year. Congress’ authority to levy an income tax comes from which of the following? a. Interstate commerce clause b. Sixteenth Amendment 23
c. Budget Act (1974) d. Bill of Rights e. Marbury v. Madison 149. The largest contributions to federal revenue comes from a. Taxes on businesses. b. Interest on foreign debt. c. Entry fees at national parks. d. Individual income taxes. e. Capital gains taxes. 150. Which of the following statements is true about U.S. budget deficits? a. The first federal budget deficit did not occur until the 1990s. b. The Constitution requires a balanced federal budget. c. Large budget deficits make the U.S. government more financially dependent on foreign investors. d. Budget deficits have no practical effect on individual citizens. e. The Democratic and Republican parties have agreed that the deficit issue should not become an issue in presidential campaigns. 151. The biggest category of federal expenditures is spending for a. Foreign aid. b. Salaries and benefits for public employees. c. Interest on the national debt. d. National defense e. Aid to the elderly and the poor. 152. Government spending determined by how many eligible beneficiaries there are for a program which cannot be easily maintained as known as a. Entitlements. b. Incrementalism. c. Revenues. d. Uncontrollable expenditures. e. Controlled expenditures. 153. All of the following are steps in the budgetary process EXCEPT a. The Congressional Budget Office works closely with the president to finalize the budget that he will propose to Congress. b. The House Ways and Means Committee and the Senate Finance Committee work together to write the tax codes. c. The Office of Management and Budget reviews and assesses the budget proposals submitted by each agency. d. Congress passes a budget resolution to set a cap on expenditures for the fiscal year. e. The Appropriations Committee decides how to divide federal resources among the departments and agencies. 154. The federal government borrows money from citizens through a. Income taxes b. Bonds c. Social Security 24
d. Authorization bills e. Entitlement programs 155. What is one factor that has contributed most to the expansion of the government and, consequently, the budget deficit? a. Globalization b. Expanding suffrage c. Incrementalism d. Tax reforms e. National security 156. The government receives most of its revenues from a. Excise taxes b. Social income taxes c. Personal income taxes d. Public bonds e. Sales taxes 157. The Social Security program may falter in the mid-‐twenty-‐first century for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. People are living longer b. The cost of living is rising c. The baby-‐boom generation will be receiving benefits d. Expenditures will exceed revenues e. Rising unemployment will drain the program’s income 158. Which of the following is one major impact of social programs on the federal government? a. A new federal court has been established to handle cases addressing poverty. b. The responsibilities and size of the bureaucracy have increased. c. The Federal Reserve Board now determines entitlement eligibility. d. They led to the election of Republican presidents for most of the twentieth century. e. The bureaucracy has come under the jurisdiction of the Department of Justice. 159. The poor are largely at a disadvantage in the political process because they a. Are represented by too many antipoverty interest groups that are competing for influence. b. Have been denied access to policymakers by an executive order from the president. c. Make up only a small percentage of voters. d. Usually vote for Democrats, but the power of the Democratic Party has declined sharply. e. Do not pay enough in income tax to gain the attention of policymakers. 160. In the American health care system who pays most of the costs for medical research and treatment? a. Individuals b. Employers c. Medical professionals d. Insurance companies e. The government 161. Roth v. United States and Texas v. Johnson are Supreme Court cases that address the a. Sixth Amendment rights of defendants. 25
b. c. d. e.
Definition of obscenity. Right of free speech. Definition of probable cause. Right to privacy. 162. Approximately 90 percent of criminal cases in the United States a. Are cases in which the defendants’ rights have been abused by law enforcement officials. b. Are appealed to the Supreme Court. c. Involve First Amendment rights. d. Are closed to the public during the trial. e. Are resolved by plea bargaining and do not go to trial. 163. The Supreme Court has regularly cited the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment to a. Extend the protection of the Bill of Rights to defendants in state trials. b. Assert its power of judicial review. c. Prevent the executive branch from infringing on civil liberties. d. Ensure the right to bear arms. e. Impose limitations on the exercise of defendants’ rights. 164. The Civil Rights Act did all of the following EXCEPT a. Create the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. b. Deny federal funding to businesses and schools that practiced discrimination. c. Prevent discrimination in state voting procedures. d. Prohibit discrimination in hotels, in restaurants, and on public transportation. e. Outlaw job discrimination. 165. A plaintiff cannot bring suit unless he or she has fulfilled which of the following requirements? a. Paid bill b. Filed an amicus curiae brief c. Appealed the case d. Hired a public defender e. Established standing to sue 166. Courts of appeal focus their attention on which aspect of a case? a. The facts presented by both parties in the original case. b. The amicus curiae briefs registered with the court. c. The backgrounds of the jury members in the original case. d. The procedures and interpretation of the law in the original case. e. The testimonies of both sides given before the Supreme Court. 167. Judicial restraint is best defined as: a. Refusing to let the court be influenced by outside sources such as amicus curiae briefs. b. Trying to determine what the framers intended when they wrote the Constitution. c. A restriction in exercising judicial power so as to respect stare decisis and not to undermine the powers of the other two branches. d. Decision-‐making by the courts that results in significant policy changes. e. The political philosophy of most liberal judges and Justices. 26
168.
The Equal Rights Amendment has not become a part of the Constitution because a. It was not ratified by enough states. b. The Senate voted against it after the House had passed it. c. The women’s rights movement has focused primarily on preserving protectionist laws. d. The Supreme Court found it unconstitutional. e. Feminists decried it for neglecting to take a firm position on women’s rights. 169. Critics of affirmative action claim that it a. Violates the First Amendment freedom of speech. b. Encourages reverse discrimination. c. Fails to sufficiently compensate minorities for past discrimination. d. Excuses the federal government from having to enforce civil rights. e. Favors certain minority groups over other minority groups. 170. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between Plessy v. Ferguson and Brown v. Board of Education? a. Plessy reinforced the advancement of civil rights begun by the Supreme Court in Brown. b. Both Plessy and Brown extended voting rights to disenfranchised African-‐Americans in the South. c. Both Plessy and Brown made desegregation in public schools compulsory. d. The Supreme Court overturned its decision in Plessy with its Brown ruling. e. The Supreme Court extended the precedent established in Plessy with its Brown decision. 171. All of these court actions are examples of judicial activism EXCEPT: a. Refusing to hear an appellate case involving accused terrorists in Guantanamo. b. Declaring state sponsored prayer in public school to be unconstitutional. c. Requiring that states provide attorneys for poor criminal suspects. d. Overturning the Gun Free School Zones Act. e. Striking down a state death penalty law. 172. When considering a nominee for a federal judge position: a. Four Supreme Court Justices must vote to approve of the nominee. b. The president looks for someone to permanently fill the position whereas a divided Congress often tries to grant temporary positions. c. The requirement of an Ivy League college degree is considered most important. d. The president must ensure the specific experience qualifications listed in Article III have been met. e. The president most often selects someone with ideological beliefs similar to his own. 173. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the death penalty is not a form of cruel and unusual punishment? a. Gregg v. Georgia b. Gideon v. Wainwright c. Barron v. Baltimore d. Engel v. Vitale e. Gitlow v. New York 174. Which of the following best describes a purpose of the Establishment Clause? a. It gives Congress the power to protect civil rights and civil liberties. b. It prohibits Congress from establishing a state religion. 27
c. It empowers Congress to create a national bank. d. It prevents Congress from prohibiting the possession of guns on school grounds. e. It grants Congress the power to establish post roads and post offices. 175. The United States Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka was based on which of the following? a. The First Amendment’s right to freedom of expression. b. The Fourteenth Amendment’s due process clause. c. The Fourteenth Amendment’s guarantee of equal protection. d. The Fourth Amendment’s exclusionary rule. e. The Fifth Amendment’s power of eminent domain. 176. To which level of government did the Bill of Rights originally apply? a. State governments only b. Federal government only c. State and federal governments only d. Local and federal governments only e. Local, state, and federal governments
177. Which of the following best defines civil liberties? a. The freedom to refuse to obey laws an individual considers to be immoral violations of civil rights. b. Precedents pertaining to criminal procedure that are set by the Supreme Court that are upheld in the lower courts. c. Those features of the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution that pertain to the actions of individuals and groups. d. Laws passed by Congress to define the powers and privileges of individuals. e. Provisions in the Bill of Rights that provide guarantees against arbitrary interference by government. 178. The United States Supreme Court has used which of the following to incorporate the Bill of Rights a. The necessary and proper clause b. The Fourteenth Amendment c. The Judiciary Act of 1789 d. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 e. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 179. In Gideon v. Wainwright, the United States Supreme Court ruled that the a. Bible could be distributed at public schools under the free exercise clause of the First Amendment b. Exclusionary rule prevented the introduction of evidence seized in violation of the Fourth Amendment from being introduced in court. c. Eminent domain clause of the Fifth Amendment prevents government taking religious property for public purposes. d. Sixth Amendment right-‐to-‐counsel provision applies to those accused of major crimes under state laws. e. Eight Amendment cruel-‐and-‐unusual-‐punishment provision cannot be applied in a discriminatory manner. 28
180. Senators have influenced the selection of judges for the federal district courts through: a. Supreme Court litigation. b. gerrymandering. c. use of the legislative veto. d. using the media to oppose the president’s nominees. e. the practice of Senatorial Courtesy. 181. Which represents a major reason for the submission of an amicus curiae brief? a. The Court must rely on precedent cases. b. A friend of the court wishes to provide additional information to the Court. c. Lower courts must provide transcripts of its decisions. d. The Supreme Court requires related interests in the case to submit briefs. e. The brief from the petitioner provides amended information about the case. 182. The doctrine of stare decisis is significant for which of the following reasons? a. It establishes the jurisdiction of federal courts in litigation involving two or more states. b. It is the principle that affirms that courts are bound by prior decisions. c. It is the policy by which the Supreme Court decides which of the appellate cases it will hear. d. It directs states to provide a lawyer for people who cannot pay for their own legal defense. e. It holds high courts responsible for determining the constitutionality of proposed legislation before it becomes law. 183. A plaintiff cannot bring suit unless he or she has fulfilled which of the following requirements? a. Paid bill b. Filed an amicus curiae brief c. Appealed the case d. Hired a public defender e. Established standing to sue 184. Which of the following has the power to increase the size of the Supreme Court? a. The voters b. The president c. Congress d. A constitutional amendment e. A vote by the Senate Judiciary Committee 185. Which of the following is NOT an example of judicial activism? a. Brown v. Board (1954)- declared school segregation to be unconstitutional b. Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) – upheld Jim Crow segregation laws c. Bush v. Gore (2000) – ended the Florida election recount due to violation of the Equal Protection clause d. Roe v. Wade (1973) – legalized first trimester abortion nationwide e. Griswold v. Connecticut (1965) – established a right to privacy 186. The abridgment of citizens’ freedom to worship, or not to worship, as they please is prohibited by the a. due process clause. b. establishment clause. c. free exercise clause. 29
d. freedom of religion. e. Second Amendment.
187. All of the following US Supreme Court decisions strengthened the power of the federal government over the states EXCEPT: a. Gibbons v. Ogden, 1824 b. Marbury v. Madison, 1803 c. McCulloch v. Maryland, 1819 d. Dred Scott v. Sandford, 1857 e. Korematsu v. US, 1944 188. One effect of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was: a. significant increase in the number of African Americans registered to vote. b. increased access of Blacks to public accommodations. c. the increased use of gerrymandering. d. decreased involvement of federal officials in state election procedures. e. an increase in segregation. 189. Judicial restraint is best defined as: a. refusing to let the court be influenced by outside sources such as amicus curiae briefs. b. trying to determine what the framers intended when they wrote the Constitution. c. a restriction in exercising judicial power so as to respect stare decisis and not to undermine the powers of the other two branches. d. decision-‐making by the courts that results in significant policy changes. e. the political philosophy of most liberal judges and Justices. 190. Original intent or strict construction of the Constitution refers to: a. giving judges the opportunity to interpret the law through their own ideological lenses. b. frequent use of the elastic clause to expand Congress’s powers as needed. c. broad interpretations of vague constitutional passages. d. giving judges broad powers to interpret the Constitution and apply it to contemporary issues. e. a close, literal, narrow reading of the document in consideration of the context under which it was written. 191. An argument against the use of judicial activism is: a. policymakers should be able to adapt the Constitution to today’s issues and societal values. b. the Constitution is a flexible, living document. c. judges and Justices are not elected and thus, should not possess sweeping policymaking powers that limit or undo the actions of the elected policymakers. d. the framers intentionally created a strong judiciary to resolve the ideological differences between the other branches. e. the judicial branch should have the power to correct societal injustices. 192. In Barron v. Baltimore (1833), the Supreme Court maintained that: a. the commerce clause should be interpreted broadly as in Gibbons v. Ogden 30
(1824). b. the Bill of Rights protects citizens from both the national and state governments. c. cities can not evoke eminent domain. d. the Bill of Rights only restricted the national government from violating civil liberties. e. the 14th amendment applies provisions of the Bill of Rights to the states. 193. All of the following are true of Gitlow v. New York (1925) EXCEPT: a. the court nationalized part of the 1st amendment. b. the federal government can censor free speech if it causes a “clear and present danger.” c. the court ruled that freedoms of speech and press were protected by the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. d. it was the first case in which a provision of the Bill of Rights was incorporated to the states. e. it involved an interpretation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments. 194. The decision of the Supreme Court in Roe v. Wade was based on a. the Free-‐Exercise Clause of the First Amendment b. the right to privacy stated in the Bill of Rights c. the right to privacy implied in the Bill of Rights d. the right to privacy established in Lawrence v. Texas e. the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment 195. In which situation would a president most easily get his federal judge appointments confirmed? a. when polls predict an increase in approval ratings for the president. b. when he selects someone who is extremely liberal or conservative. c. when the House of Representatives has a least 218 members of the president’s party. d. when a majority of the Senate is of the same party of the president. e. when he appoints someone of the opposite political ideology. 196. Which of the following is the best indication of pluralism in American politics? a. The American Association of Retired Persons has the largest membership of any interest group. b. Third parties often endorse candidates for office, but rarely do they win elections. c. The federal bureaucracy is expanding as more and more citizens are hired for federal jobs. d. More than 20,000 interest groups lobby Congress each year. e. Citizens are able to vote in local, state, and national elections.
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